A question in re a paragraph from Aristotle’s “Topics,” Book 3, Chp. 2

Aristotle says the following:

“Moreover, that is more desirable in whose absence it is less blameworthy for people to be vexed; and that is more desirable in whose absence it is more blameworthy for a man not to be vexed.”

The first has to be knowledge or self-composure. If you’re ignorant about a matter of fact, you can hardly be blamed for it. In the second, it has to be self-esteem, but could it also be knowledge again? Or maybe the knowledge is knowledge of oneself? Do you agree?

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About johnvkaravitis

Senior Financial Analyst: Energy, Insurance, IT consulting, Pharmaceuticals, Publishing, Real Estate
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